/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
How did feudalism end in Britain? Was it an instant like in Russia in 1861, or was it incremental? What "growing pains" were suffered by the lords and serfs and society at large by this change?
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Was Alexander aware of the growing power of Rome? If they were to meet would Alexander have squashed Rome before it became an empire?
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Regarding a recent legislative proposal in the US Senate that would entail a 60-day congressional review period of any US-Iranian agreements, is there any precedent for similar Congressional involvement in foreign agreements?
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How would European royalty have addressed one another when speaking in a language whose second-person pronouns had varying degrees of formality and plurality?
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is it possible “documented” evidence of Xia/Shang dynasties would have been destroyed by Qin Shi Huang?
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